Expert: Sam Rutherford - 4/16/2007

Question
sir, would u plz kindly tell me and guide me about Greek tragedy and esp English Tragedy? what is that? does that have some principles like Greek Tragedy? where from that starts? does that have any connection with Renaissance? kindly reply me as soon as possible, i will be grateful to u. thanks

Answer
This is not a history question. It's a question of literary criticism, so this is a no warrenty answer, OK?

Greek tragedy conforms to what is called Aristotilian unities of time, place, and atmosphere; that is, the work is supposed to take place within a brief timeframe, in a compact location, and have a uniform mood throughout. The protagonist is also supposed to be fated to undergo the horrible events that are the focus of the work, that is, he has no way out. He's doomed by circumstances and by his nature. And he is supposed to manifest hubris, that is pride, a feeling that he is above his fellow men in some fundamental way, nearly the equal of the gods. Greek tragedy was a quasireligious ritual. It wasn't entertainment.

By "English tragedy" I'm sure you mean Elizabethan (Reinaissance) or Shakesparean tragedy. Honestly it's about the same, just not as strict in its conformation to the model outlined above. Shakespeare will inject some comic relief into his darkest tragedies. He isn't so concerned about a compact setting aor timeframe. His protagonsts' misfortuns will seem fated, and they will demonstrate a personality flaw which contributes to their doom. It won't necessarily be pride, however. And English tragedy was an entertainment, and a commercial entertainment at that, so its consumers and producers didn't have the reverent attitude towards the undertaking that was pervasive among the Greeks.